IELTS Listening Test 1 | 2019 Online Practice

Cambridge IELTS Computer-based Tests
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test-p1 Audioscript
test-p2 Audioscript
test-p3 Audioscript
test-p4 Audioscript
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PART 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.
CRIME REPORT FORM
  • Type of crime: theft
  • Personal information
    1. Name Louise Taylor
    2. Nationality
    3. Date of birth 14 December 1977
    4. Occupation interior designer
    5. Reason for visit business (to buy antique )
    6. Length of stay two months
    7. Current address Apartments (No 15)
  • Details of theft
    1. Items stolen – a wallet containing approximately £
    2. – a
    3. Date of theft
  • Possible time and place of theft
    1. Location outside the at about 4 pm
    2. Details of suspect – some boys asked for the then ran off
    3. – one had a T-shirt with a picture of a tiger
    4. – he was about 12, slim build with hair
  • Crime reference number allocated
PART 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11 - 12
Choose TWO correct answers.
Which TWO pieces of advice for the first week of an apprenticeship does the manager give?
Questions 13 - 14
Choose TWO correct answers.
Which TWO things does the manager say mentors can help with?

Questions 15 - 20
What does the manager say about each of the following aspects of the company policy for apprentices?
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
A It is encouraged.
B There are some restrictions.
C It is against the rules.
Company policy for apprentices
Using the internet
Flexible working
Booking holidays
Working overtime
Wearing trainers
Bringing food to work
PART 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 - 25
Choose the correct answer.
Cities built by the sea
21 Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities
22 According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers
23 What mistake was made when building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s?
24 What do Rob and Carla think that the authorities in Miami should do immediately?
25 What do they agree should be the priority for international action?
Questions 26 - 30
What decision do the students make about each of the following parts of their presentation?
Choose the correct letter, A–G.
Decisions
A use visuals
B keep it short
C involve other students
D check the information is accurate
E provide a handout
F focus on one example
G do online research
Parts of the presentation
Historical background
Geographical factors
Past mistakes
Future risks
International implications
PART 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31 - 40
Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.
Marine renewable energy ocean energy
  • Introduction
  • More energy required because of growth in population and
  • What's needed:
  • – renewable energy sources
  • – methods that won't create pollution
  • Wave energy
  • Advantage: waves provide a source of renewable energy
  • Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems
  • Onshore systems may use a reservoir
  • Problems:
  • – waves can move in any
  • – movement of sand, etc. on the of the ocean may be affected
  • Tidal energy
  • Tides are more than waves
  • Planned tidal lagoon in Wales:
  • – will be created in a at Swansea
  • – breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines
  • – rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity
  • – stored water is released through , driving the turbines in the reverse direction
  • Advantages:
  • – not dependent on weather
  • – no is required to make it work
  • – likely to create a number of
  • Problem:
  • – may harm fish and birds, e.g. by affecting and building up silt
  • Ocean thermal energy conversion
  • Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels
  • Water brought to the surface in a pipe
Part 1 12345678910 Part 2 11121314151617181920 Part 3 21222324252627282930 Part 4 31323334353637383940
49 comments
registered user
Mohammad AminDec 29, 2023
Great
registered user
Zahra EbbbbFeb 22, 2024
35/40
registered user
Nasim NabiOct 14, 2023
31
registered user
Kimia GhadirianDec 30, 2023
34
registered user
Arghavan MoradiDec 29, 2023
35 - band score 8
registered user
Hadi RasouliFeb 18, 2024
Thanks for your great website and for providing the chance to practice online.
Our pleasure.
registered user
Samane MontazeriDec 30, 2023
33-7.5
registered user
Arman OsarehDec 31, 2023
Unfortunatly I had some spelling errors
registered user
Aseme PourrajabiDec 31, 2023
I can not submit my answers. And there are no keys, audio scripts, and reviewing process for the listening tests. Could you please help me?
When your test time is up, your answers are automatically submitted, and your score appears. On the left side of the screen, you'll find icons for review, audioscript and restart the test buttons.
registered user
Sogand NzkFeb 14, 2024
36/40
registered user
Faisal AjarmahMar 09, 2024
33/407.5/9
registered user
Saeedeh KhabbazJan 09, 2024
How we should write the date ? is September 1oth incorrect ?
The only correct answer available in the official Cambridge answer key is 10(th) October.
registered user
Erfan RahaeiMay 12, 2024
38
registered user
Vikram VisuJan 16, 2024
HI ,thought to inform u that both September 10 and 10 september both are correct accroding to the idp website which in 2019 listening test it shows 10(th) september as the only correct answer.
Unfortunately, in the Cambridge official answer key - 10(th) September - is the only correct answer available, and we always stick with the answer key.
registered user
Maryam ShojaeeFeb 09, 2024
33/40
registered user
Adarsh JeetMar 21, 2024
Can't get above 35
registered user
Taha TabatMay 12, 2024
36 => 8 stupid mistakes ):
registered user
Javad VafabakhshJan 27, 2024
31
registered user
Romina SamieiFeb 01, 2024
Great site, tnx a lot32
registered user
Ellie TalebApr 24, 2024
35
registered user
Mohammadreza MirkooMar 27, 2024
33- 27th March
registered user
Narges SadeghiMar 07, 2024
34
registered user
Mojtaba KhamarMar 27, 2024
36
registered user
Georgia MelbourneMar 05, 2024
My score was 7.5... I think that if I highlighted the key words it would have been easier. I found the dialogue between the two students quite confusing...
registered user
Shahab MoradiFeb 13, 2024
33/40
registered user
Istiqomah IstiqomahFeb 18, 2024
My answer is 10(th) September, but the systems was counted as wrong
registered user
Salva EbtedMar 09, 2024
34
registered user
Al ChemizedFeb 28, 2024
37/40
registered user
Elnaz HeydariFeb 19, 2024
29/40
registered user
Farkhod ErkinovMar 25, 2024
36/40 Not bad
registered user
Amir KhalkhaliMar 02, 2024
39/40
registered user
Ali PoorseyedMar 05, 2024
31 :0
registered user
Islam KassymovApr 07, 2024
Why September 10 is considered wrong? i could have got 35
registered user
Sheena SharmaMar 11, 2024
39
registered user
Kasra JamkasraApr 27, 2024
29
registered user
Farnood MollaieApr 02, 2024
35
registered user
Md Zahidul IslamMar 22, 2024
30
registered user
Sevda GajiyevaApr 27, 2024
32
registered user
Shahin SalehMar 16, 2024
26
registered user
Avishka DilshanMar 31, 2024
36- 8
registered user
Suraiya MatayehMay 16, 2024
31
registered user
Mahshad ShiMar 23, 2024
35
registered user
Priyash MukherjeeApr 02, 2024
33
registered user
Adib KhaliliMay 23, 2024
35
registered user
Moonlight AustinMay 09, 2024
How to check previous answers without starting the exam again?
This option is not available in this version of the simulation. It will be available in the new premium version.
registered user
Asal MehrabiMay 18, 2024
36
registered user
Sultan Khaibar SafiMay 03, 2024
20 only please suggest me what should i do
registered user
Mamad RafieMay 16, 2024
5.5
registered user
Farnoosh BasamiMay 18, 2024
36/40
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